Talk:Semitic people

Latest comment: 6 days ago by 2607:FEA8:6065:6900:915B:CCEA:C85E:437 in topic Coining of the term

Coining of the term

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The article says that the term was first used to describe race in the 1770's, but didn't Schlozer and Eichhorn first coin the term in 1781 in reference to the language families? I can't seem to find any earlier references than 1781? I see references to race that came later (ie. Renan), but nothing in the 1770's.

Another reference, Angel Badillos says: “The term ’Semitic’ [languages] was first introduced by Gottfried Leibniz and given wider currency by August Schlozer on the basis of the list of Noah's descendants in Gn 10:21ff, which itself reflects early ideas about the family relationship of Arabic, Hebrew, and Aramaic. Later, knowledge of new languages would lead to other names being added to the Semitic family, giving it a more appropriate position within the framework of the 'Afro-Asiatic' languages.”

— Badillos, Angel (1996), A History of the Hebrew Language (pg. 3).

— Leibniz, Gottfried. (245A/1710). “A Brief Outline of Reflections on the Origins of Nations, drawn especially from the Evidence of Languages” (”Brevis designatio meditationum de Originibus Gentium, ductis potissimum ex indicio linguarum”) (pg. 4), Miscellanea Berolinensia ad Incrementum. ex scnptis Societati Regice Scientiarum exhibitis edita. Berlin, [I] 1-16.

— Eichhorn, Johann. (164A/1781). Repertorium fur biblische and morgenlandische Literatur, VIII (pg. 161). Leipzig.

So, I guess my question is: etymologically, does the Gottingen classification originate as a racial category or a linguistic category? The article doesn't have a reference to the claim that it started as a racial category in the 1770's, but Schlozer's linguistic category seems pretty much attested. Can we add a citation if there is one, or a citation needed flag for the 1770's number? 2607:FEA8:6065:6900:915B:CCEA:C85E:437 (talk) 03:19, 19 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

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